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Post by dominiquerhines on Apr 8, 2020 20:37:46 GMT
Why does Jesus tell the Pharisees and scribes in John 8:15 that He judges no one? I know that Jesus did judge, does judge, and will judge; and even at that, He judges righteously based solely on how the Father judges. Jesus said this after the scribes and Pharisees sought to challenge Him on what to do with a woman they "caught in the very act of adultery." Here is the scripture in context...
John 8:12-16 NKJV -
[12] Then Jesus spoke to them again, saying, "I am the light of the world. He who follows Me shall not walk in darkness, but have the light of life."
[13] The Pharisees therefore said to Him, "You bear witness of Yourself; Your witness is not true."
[14] Jesus answered and said to them, "Even if I bear witness of Myself, My witness is true, for I know where I came from and where I am going; but you do not know where I come from and where I am going.
[15] "You judge according to the flesh; I judge no one.
[16] "And yet if I do judge, My judgment is true; for I am not alone, but I am with the Father who sent Me.
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Post by Larry Marquez on Apr 9, 2020 1:38:23 GMT
Maybe it relates to how he didn't come to condemn the world but to save it.
Also in the Greek into English it can say "judge" , but I think depending on the Greek word used it can mean different types of judging
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